alison Posted March 10, 2019 Posted March 10, 2019 Something that's occurred to me recently: is it always the male variation which goes first in a Classical pas de deux? If so, why do you think that is, assuming it's not sexism?
ninamargaret Posted March 11, 2019 Posted March 11, 2019 I've always thought that it is an old fashioned form of politeness that gives the rather more delicate female a couple of minutes to catch her breath! 7
Mary Posted March 11, 2019 Posted March 11, 2019 Well she usually has more to do doesn't she, so it makes sense she gets the first rest- then she gets the rousing finale, while the end of his second variation is often half shooed off stage by her whipping across the stage..... 7
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